[Apr 24, 2023] Genuine PSE-SASE Exam Dumps Free Demo
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NEW QUESTION 29
What happens when SaaS Security sees a new or unknown SaaS application?
- A. It extends the branch perimeter to the closest node with high performance.
- B. It forwards the application for WildFire analysis.
- C. It uses machine learning (ML) to classify the application.
- D. It generates alerts regarding changes in performance.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 30
In which step of the Five-Step Methodology for implementing the Zero Trust model does inspection and logging of all traffic take place?
- A. Step 5: Monitor and maintain the network
- B. Step 4: Create the Zero Trust policy
- C. Step 3: Architect a Zero Trust network
- D. Step 1: Define the protect surface
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 31
Which connection method allows secure web gateway (SWG) access to internet-based SaaS applications using HTTP and HTTPS protocols?
- A. explicit proxy
- B. system-wide proxy
- C. GlobalProtect
- D. Broker VM
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 32
What is a disadvantage of proxy secure access service edge (SASE) when compared to an inline SASE solution?
- A. Teams added additional tools to web proxies that promised to solve point problems, resulting in a fragmented and ineffective security architecture.
- B. Exclusive use of web proxies leads to significant blind spots in traffic and an inability to identify applications and threats on non-standard ports or across multiple protocols.
- C. Proxy solutions require an unprecedented level of interconnectivity.
- D. Proxies force policy actions to be treated as business decisions instead of compromises due to technical limitations.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 33
Which statement applies to Prisma Access licensing?
- A. It is a perpetual license required to enable support for multiple virtual systems on PA-3200 Series firewalls.
- B. Internet of Things (IOT) Security is included with each license.
- C. For remote network and Clean Pipe deployments, a unit is defined as 1 Mbps of bandwidth.
- D. It provides cloud-based, centralized log storage and aggregation.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 34
Which App Response Time metric measures the amount of time it takes to transfer incoming data from an external server to a local client?
- A. UDP Response Time (UDP-TRT)
- B. Network Transfer Time (NTTn)
- C. Server Response Time (SRT)
- D. Round Trip Time (RTT)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 35
Which App Response Time metric is the measure of network latency?
- A. UDP Response Time (UDP-TRT)
- B. Network Transfer Time (NTTn)
- C. Server Response Time (SRT)
- D. Round Trip Time (RTT)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 36
Which product draws on data collected through PAN-OS device telemetry to provide an overview of the health of an organization's next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment and identify areas for improvement?
- A. security information and event management (SIEM)
- B. Cloud Identity Engine (CIE)
- C. DNS Security
- D. Device Insights
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 37
Which product enables organizations to open unknown files in a sandbox environment and scan them for malware or other threats?
- A. SD-WAN
- B. network sandbox
- C. cloud access security broker (CASB)
- D. remote browser isolation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 38
Which two key benefits have been identified for a customer investing in the Palo Alto Networks Prisma secure access service edge (SASE) solution? (Choose two.)
- A. reduced number of security incidents requiring manual investigation
- B. reduced input required from management during third-party investigations
- C. decreased need for interaction between branches
- D. decreased likelihood of a data breach
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION 39
What is an advantage of the Palo Alto Networks cloud-based security infrastructure?
- A. It backhauls traffic to the corporate network.
- B. It provides comprehensive, scalable cloud security with flexible licensing options.
- C. It allows for the elimination of data centers within five years of implementation.
- D. It increases the footprint of the security solution.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 40
How does the Palo Alto Networks secure access service edge (SASE) solution enable Zero Trust in a customer environment?
- A. It classifies sites based on content, features, and safety.
- B. It feeds threat intelligence into an automation engine for rapid and consistent protections.
- C. It continuously validates every stage of a digital interaction.
- D. It stops attacks that use DNS for command and control or data theft.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 41
What is feature of Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM)?
- A. It natively ingests, normalizes, and integrates granular data across the security infrastructure at nearly half the cost of legacy security products attempting to solve the problem.
- B. It provides IT teams with single-pane visibility that leverages endpoint, simulated, and real-time user traffic data to provide the most complete picture of user traffic flows possible.
- C. It applies configuration changes and provides credential management, role-based controls, and a playbook repository.
- D. It provides customized forms to collect and validate necessary parameters from the requester.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 42
Cloud-delivered App-ID provides specific identification of which two applications? (Choose two.)
- A. private
- B. unknown-tcp
- C. web-browsing
- D. custom
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION 43
Which statement describes the data loss prevention (DLP) add-on?
- A. It is a centrally delivered cloud service with unified detection policies that can be embedded in existing control points.
- B. It enables data sharing with third-party tools such as security information and event management (SIEM) systems.
- C. It employs automated policy enforcement to allow trusted behavior with a new Device-ID policy construct.
- D. It prevents phishing attacks by controlling the sites to which users can submit valid corporate credentials.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 44
In which step of the Five-Step Methodology of Zero Trust are application access and user access defined?
- A. Step 1: Define the Protect Surface
- B. Step 4: Create the Zero Trust Policy
- C. Step 3: Architect a Zero Trust Network
- D. Step 5: Monitor and Maintain the Network
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 45
Which product allows advanced Layer 7 inspection, access control, threat detection and prevention?
- A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B. network sandbox
- C. Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)
- D. remote browser isolation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 46
Which two services are part of the Palo Alto Networks cloud-delivered security services (CDSS) package?
(Choose two.)
- A. security information and event management (SIEM)
- B. virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)
- C. Advanced URL Filtering (AURLF)
- D. Internet of Things (IoT) Security
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION 47
What is a benefit of the Palo Alto Networks secure access service edge (SASE) solution's ability to provide insight into SD-WAN and network security metrics while highlighting critical issues across all managed tenants?
- A. It simplifies workflows and instantly automates common use cases with hundreds of prebuilt playbooks.
- B. It helps protect inbound, outbound, and east-west traffic between container workload types in Kubernetes environments without slowing development speed.
- C. It helps managed service providers (MSPs) accelerate troubleshooting and meet service level agreements (SLAs) for all their customers.
- D. It rearchitects the way signatures are delivered, performing updates and streaming them to the firewall within seconds after the analysis is done.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 48
What are three ways the secure access service edge (SASE) model can help an organization? (Choose three.)
- A. increased licensing requirements
- B. decreased reliance on best practices
- C. increased performance
- D. data protection
- E. cost savings
Answer: C,D,E
NEW QUESTION 49
Organizations that require remote browser isolation (RBI) to protect their users can automate connectivity to third-party RBI products with which platform?
- A. CloudBlades API
- B. SaaS Security API
- C. Zero Trust
- D. GlobalProtect
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 50
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