[Full-Version] 2023 New Dumpexams 220-1102 PDF Recently Updated Questions
220-1102 Exam with Guarantee Updated 432 Questions
CompTIA 220-1102 exam is designed to test the candidate’s ability to install and configure operating systems, software applications, and mobile devices. It also evaluates the candidate’s knowledge of security concepts, including threat mitigation, software security, and data privacy. Additionally, 220-1102 exam covers cloud computing, virtualization, and network troubleshooting, which are integral parts of the modern IT landscape.
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 is a challenging but rewarding certification exam for IT professionals. It is a valuable investment in one's career, as it demonstrates proficiency in IT support and troubleshooting and can lead to exciting career opportunities in the IT industry.
CompTIA 220-1102 exam covers a wide range of topics, including installing and configuring operating systems, cloud computing, virtualization, and network protocols. 220-1102 exam is composed of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions that must be completed within 90 minutes. 220-1102 exam is available in several languages, including English, German, Portuguese, and Japanese. The passing score for the exam is 700 out of 900, and the certification is valid for three years.
NEW QUESTION # 165
An organization is centralizing support functions and requires the ability to support a remote user's desktop. Which of the following technologies will allow a technician to see the issue along with the user?
- A. VNC
- B. VPN
- C. RDP
- D. SSH
Answer: A
Explanation:
VNC will allow a technician to see the issue along with the user when an organization is centralizing support functions and requires the ability to support a remote user's desktop1
NEW QUESTION # 166
The courts determined that a cybercrimes case could no longer be prosecuted due to the agency's handling of evidence. Which of the following was MOST likely violated during the investigation?
- A. EULA
- B. AUP
- C. Open-source software
- D. Chain of custody
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Chain of custody is a process that documents how evidence is collected, handled, stored and transferred during a cybercrime investigation. It ensures that the evidence is authentic, reliable and admissible in court. If the chain of custody is violated during an investigation, it can compromise the integrity of the evidence and lead to the case being dismissed. Open-source software, EULA (end-user license agreement) and AUP (acceptable use policy) are not related to cybercrime investigations or evidence handling. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-chain-of-custody https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 167
A user is attempting to browse the internet using Internet Explorer. When trying to load a familiar web page, the user is unexpectedly redirected to an unfamiliar website. Which of the following would MOST likely solve the issue?
- A. Updating the operating system
- B. Enabling port forwarding
- C. Reinstalling the browser
- D. Changing proxy settings
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reinstalling the browser would most likely solve the issue. This would remove any malicious software or add-ons that may be causing the issue and restore the browser to its default settings.
NEW QUESTION # 168
Which of the following is the MOST basic version of Windows that includes BitLocker?
- A. Home
- B. pro
- C. Enterprise
- D. Pro for Workstations
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The most basic version of Windows that includes BitLocker is Windows Pro. BitLocker is a feature of Windows Pro that provides full disk encryption for all data on a storage drive [1]. It helps protect data from unauthorized access or theft and can help secure data from malicious attacks. Pro for Workstations includes this feature, as well as other features such as support for up to 6 TB of RAM and ReFS.
NEW QUESTION # 169
A user notices a small USB drive is attached to the user's computer after a new vendor visited the office. The technician notices two files named grabber.exe and output.txt. Which of the following attacks is MOST likely occurring?
- A. Cryptominer
- B. Rootkit
- C. Keylogger
- D. Trojan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A keylogger is a type of malware that records the keystrokes of a user and sends them to a remote attacker. A keylogger can be used to steal passwords, credit card numbers, personal information, and other sensitive data.
A keylogger can be delivered through a USB drive that contains a malicious executable file, such as grabber.exe, and an output file that stores the captured keystrokes, such as output.txt. The other options are not likely to use this method of attack. References: :
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-a-core-2-exam-objectives :
https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/keylogger
NEW QUESTION # 170
The audio on a user's mobile device is inconsistent when the user uses wireless headphones and moves around. Which of the following should a technician perform to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Bring the device within Bluetooth range.
- B. Enable the NFC setting on the device.
- C. Turn on device tethering.
- D. Verify the Wi-Fi connection status.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bringing the device within Bluetooth range is the best way to troubleshoot the issue of inconsistent audio when using wireless headphones and moving around. Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate over short distances, typically up to 10 meters or 33 feet. If the device is too far from the headphones, the Bluetooth signal may be weak or interrupted, resulting in poor audio quality or loss of connection.
NEW QUESTION # 171
A user tries to access commonly used web pages but is redirected to unexpected websites. Clearing the web browser cache does not resolve the issue. Which of the following should a technician investigate NEXT to resolve the issue?
- A. Enable firewall ACLs.
- B. Examine the localhost file entries.
- C. Update the antivirus definitions.
- D. Verify the routing tables.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 172
A technician needs to ensure that USB devices are not suspended by the operating system Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician use to configure the setting?
- A. Power Options
- B. Devices and Printers
- C. Ease of Access
- D. System
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Power Options. The Power Options utility in the Control Panel allows you to configure various settings related to how your computer uses and saves power, such as the power plan, the sleep mode, the screen brightness, and the battery status. To access the Power Options utility, you can follow these steps:
Go to Control Panel > Hardware and Sound > Power Options.
Click on Change plan settings for the power plan you are using.
Click on Change advanced power settings.
Expand the USB settings category and then the USB selective suspend setting subcategory.
Set the option to Disabled for both On battery and Plugged in.
Click on OK and then on Save changes.
This will prevent the operating system from suspending the USB devices to save power .
System, Devices and Printers, and Ease of Access are not the utilities that should be used to configure the setting. System is a utility that provides information about your computer's hardware and software, such as the processor, memory, operating system, device manager, and system protection. Devices and Printers is a utility that allows you to view and manage the devices and printers connected to your computer, such as adding or removing devices, changing device settings, or troubleshooting problems. Ease of Access is a utility that allows you to customize your computer's accessibility options, such as the narrator, magnifier, high contrast, keyboard, mouse, and speech recognition. None of these utilities have any option to configure the USB selective suspend setting.
NEW QUESTION # 173
A technician is troubleshooting an issue that requires a user profile to be rebuilt. The technician is unable to locate Local Users and Groups in the Mtv1C console. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take to resolve the issue?
- A. use the administrator console.
- B. Add the required snap-in.
- C. Run the antivirus scan.
- D. Restore the system backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Local Users and Groups is a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that allows you to manage user accounts or groups on your computer . If you cannot find it in the MMC console, you can add it manually by following these steps2:
Press Windows key + R to open the Run dialog box, or open the Command Prompt.
Type mmc and hit Enter. This will open a blank MMC console.
Click File and then Add/Remove Snap-in.
In the Add or Remove Snap-ins window, select Local Users and Groups from the Available snap-ins list, and click Add.
In the Select Computer window, choose Local computer or Another computer, depending on which computer you want to manage, and click Finish.
Click OK to close the Add or Remove Snap-ins window. You should now see Local Users and Groups in the MMC console.
NEW QUESTION # 174
A technician has an external SSD. The technician needs to read and write to an external SSD on both Macs and Windows PCs. Which of the following filesystems is supported by both OS types?
- A. APFS
- B. ext4
- C. NTFS
- D. exFAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The filesystem that is supported by both Macs and Windows PCs is D.
exFAT. exFAT is a file system that is designed to be used on flash drives like USB sticks and SD cards. It is supported by both Macs and Windows PCs, and it can handle large files and volumes
https://www.diskpart.com/articles/file-system-for-mac-and-windows-0310.html
NEW QUESTION # 175
A technician is setting up a conference room computer with a script that boots the application on login. Which of the following would the technician use to accomplish this task? (Select TWO).
- A. System Information
- B. Startup Folder
- C. Task Scheduler
- D. Device Manager
- E. Programs and Features
- F. File Explorer
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
1. Startup Folder1: The Startup folder is a special folder that contains shortcuts to programs or scripts that will run automatically when a user logs on. The technician can create a shortcut to the script and place it in the Startup folder for the conference room computer or for all users.
2. Task Scheduler23: The Task Scheduler is a tool that allows you to create tasks that run at specified times or events. The technician can create a task that runs the script at logon for the conference room computer or for all users.
NEW QUESTION # 176
A user reports that the hard drive activity light on a Windows 10 desktop computer has been steadily lit for more than an hour, and performance is severely degraded. Which of the following tabs in Task Manager would contain the information a technician would use to identify the cause of this issue?
- A. Performance
- B. Processes
- C. Services
- D. Startup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Processes tab in Task Manager would contain the information a technician would use to identify the cause of this issue. The Processes tab in Task Manager displays all the processes running on the computer, including the CPU and memory usage of each process. The technician can use this tab to identify the process that is causing the hard drive activity light to remain lit and the performance degradation1
NEW QUESTION # 177
A technician is reimaging a desktop PC. The technician connects the PC to the network and powers it on. The technician attempts to boot the computer via the NIC to image the computer, but this method does not work.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the computer is unable to boot into the imaging system via the network?
- A. The Ethernet cable the technician is using to connect the desktop to the network is faulty.
- B. The computer's CMOS battery failed.
- C. The computer's NIC is faulty.
- D. The PXE boot option has not been enabled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely reason the computer is unable to boot into the imaging system via the network is that the PXE boot option has not been enabled. PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is an environment that allows computers to boot up over the network, instead of from a local disk. In order for this to work, the PXE boot option must be enabled in the computer's BIOS settings. As stated in the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, technicians should know how to enable PXE in BIOS to enable network booting on a computer.
NEW QUESTION # 178
A technician receives a ticket indicating the user cannot resolve external web pages However, specific IP addresses are working. Which of the following does the technician MOST likely need to change on the workstation to resolve the issue?
- A. Host address
- B. Name server
- C. Subnet mask
- D. Default gateway
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 179
Which of the following would MOST likely be used to change the security settings on a user's device in a domain environment?
- A. Security groups
- B. Group Policy
- C. Login script
- D. Access control list
Answer: B
Explanation:
Group Policy is the most likely tool to be used to change the security settings on a user's device in a domain environment. Group Policy is a feature of Windows that allows administrators to manage and configure settings for multiple devices and users in a centralized way. Group Policy can be used to enforce security policies such as password complexity, account lockout, firewall rules, encryption settings, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A user reports a virus is on a PC. The user installs additional real-lime protection antivirus software, and the PC begins performing extremely slow. Which of the following steps should the technician take to resolve the issue?
- A. Launch Windows Update, and then download and install OS updates
- B. Activate real-time protection on both antivirus software programs
- C. Remove the user-installed antivirus software program.
- D. Enable the quarantine feature on both antivirus software programs.
- E. Uninstall one antivirus software program and install a different one.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Removing the user-installed antivirus software program is the best way to resolve the issue of extremely slow performance caused by installing additional real-time protection antivirus software on a PC. Having more than one antivirus software program running at the same time can cause conflicts, resource consumption and performance degradation. Uninstalling one antivirus software program and installing a different one, activating real-time protection on both antivirus software programs, enabling the quarantine feature on both antivirus software programs and launching Windows Update are not effective ways to resolve the issue. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/why-you-shouldnt-run-multiple-antivirus-programs-at-the-same-time
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 181
After clicking on a link in an email a Chief Financial Officer (CFO) received the following error:
The CFO then reported the incident to a technician. The link is purportedly to the organization's bank. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?
- A. Update the browser's CRLs
- B. Instruct the CFO to exit the browser
- C. Contact the ISP to report the CFCs concern
- D. File a trouble ticket with the bank.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The technician should update the browser's CRLs first. The error message indicates that the certificate revocation list (CRL) is not up to date. Updating the CRLs will ensure that the browser can verify the authenticity of the bank's website.
NEW QUESTION # 182
An employee calls the help desk regarding an issue with a laptop PC. After a Windows update, the user can no longer use certain locally attached devices, and a reboot has not fixed the issue. Which of the following should the technician perform to fix the issue?
- A. Disable the Windows Update service.
- B. Rollback updates.
- C. Restore hidden updates.
- D. Check for updates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The technician should perform a rollback of the Windows update that caused the issue with the locally attached devices. A rollback is a process of uninstalling an update and restoring the previous version of the system. This can help to fix any compatibility or performance issues caused by the update1. To rollback an update, the technician can use the Settings app, the Control Panel, or the System Restore feature. The technician should also check for any device driver updates that might be needed after rolling back the update.
Disabling the Windows Update service is not a good practice, as it can prevent the system from receiving important security and feature updates. Checking for updates might not fix the issue, as the update that caused the issue might still be installed. Restoring hidden updates is not relevant, as it only applies to updates that have been hidden by the user to prevent them from being installed2.
References: 1: https://www.windowscentral.com/how-uninstall-and-reinstall-updates-windows-10 2:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/show-or-hide-updates-in-windows-10-9c9f0a4f-9a6e-4c8e-8b44-af
NEW QUESTION # 183
A remote user is having issues accessing an online share. Which of the following tools would MOST likely be used to troubleshoot the Issue?
- A. Secure shell
- B. Screen-sharing software
- C. Virtual private network
- D. File transfer software
Answer: B
Explanation:
Screen-sharing software is a tool that allows a technician to remotely view and control a user's screen over the internet. It can be used to troubleshoot issues with accessing an online share, as well as other problems that require visual inspection or guidance. Secure shell (SSH) is a protocol that allows remote access and command execution on another device, but it does not allow screen-sharing. Virtual private network (VPN) is a protocol that creates a secure tunnel between two devices over the internet, but it does not allow remote troubleshooting. File transfer software is a tool that allows transferring files between two devices over the internet, but it does not allow screen-sharing. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-screen-sharing-software https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 184
A technician suspects the boot disk of a user's computer contains bad sectors. Which of the following should the technician verify in the command prompt to address the issue without making any changes?
- A. Run dfrgui on the drive as the administrator.
- B. Run clearnmgr on the drive as the administrator
- C. Run chkdsk on the drive as the administrator.
- D. Run sfc / scannow on the drive as the administrator.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The technician should verify bad sectors on the user's computer by running chkdsk on the drive as the administrator. Chkdsk (check disk) is a command-line utility that detects and repairs disk errors, including bad sectors. It runs a scan of the disk and displays any errors that are found
NEW QUESTION # 185
A user requires local administrative access to a workstation. Which of the following Control Panel utilities allows the technician to grant access to the user?
- A. Network and Sharing Center
- B. User Accounts
- C. Security and Maintenance
- D. System
Answer: B
Explanation:
User Accounts is a Control Panel utility that allows the technician to manage user accounts and groups on a local computer. The technician can use this utility to add a user to the local administrators group, which grants the user local administrative access to the workstation. The other options are not relevant for this task. Reference: : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-fs/operations/manage-user-accounts-and-groups
NEW QUESTION # 186
Antivirus software indicates that a workstation is infected with ransomware that cannot be quarantined. Which of the following should be performed FIRST to prevent further damage to the host and other systems?
- A. Run a full antivirus scan.
- B. Power off the machine.
- C. Install a different endpoint solution.
- D. Remove the LAN card.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the files on a system and demands a ransom for their decryption1. Ransomware can also spread to other systems on the network or exfiltrate sensitive data to the attackers2. Therefore, it is important to isolate the infected machine as soon as possible to contain the infection and prevent further damage3. Powering off the machine is a quick and effective way of disconnecting it from the network and stopping any malicious processes running on it12. The other options are not directly related to preventing ransomware damage or may not be effective. Running a full antivirus scan may not be able to detect or remove the ransomware, especially if it is a new or unknown variant1. Removing the LAN card may disconnect the machine from the network, but it may not stop any malicious processes running on it or any data encryption or exfiltration that has already occurred2. Installing a different endpoint solution may not be possible or helpful if the system is already infected and locked by ransomware1.
NEW QUESTION # 187
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